In1976
while at a meeting (a church), An elder stated that the first four books in the
New Testament should actually be the last four books of the Old Testament!
At
the time of my confusion about Christians, it meant nothing to my knowledge of
the 'Bible'?
Today
it is so easy to understand, why not see if this helps you?
Please,
for your sake and mine, do not try to change (Gods Word), try using it as just
another tool to help you learn?
Hebrews
9:15-17 says:
“And for this cause he is the mediator of the New Testament that
BY MEANS OF DEATH, for the redemption of the transgressions that were under the
first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal
inheritance. For where a testament is, there must also OF NECESSITY BE THE
DEATH OF THE TESTATOR. For A TESTAMENT IS OF FORCE AFTER MEN ARE DEAD:
otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth.”
Hebrews
9:15-17 explains that it was after Jesus’
death that the New Testament took force. Galatians 4:4 explains:
The Mosaic Law was the order of the Old Covenant. According
to Galatians 4:4, Jesus was born and lived under the Old Covenant. It was
not until his death that the New Testament could be made available. Since the
large majority of each book and Jesus’ entire earthly ministry occurred before
his death then it should be considered that these four books are still in the
context of the Old Covenant.
This would explain why Paul wrote that Jesus ‘was a
minister of the circumcision to confirm the promises made unto the Fathers’ (Romans 15:8).
This would also explain why Jesus operated according to the Old Testament:
This would also explain why Jesus operated according to the Old Testament:
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